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These percentages are misleading because they don't paint the full picture. Especially considering insurance and rent.

It's a very apples to oranges comparison.



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Those percentages are total income, not population. You've got it completely wrong.

Thanks for posting this! Good to have numbers to discuss!

I'm having trouble opening the spreadsheets on my Mac. How do the numbers compare for all races? Do numbers like this factor in things like health insurance or renting versus owning a house?


Am I misreading this: the conclusion is that the lowest earners cannot afford 40th percentile rents?

I'll observe that none of the statistics you offer covers the demographic of the article. I would be willing to wager that if you look at the same statistics split across income levels, you'll see a noticeable difference in rates.

Good point. Still doesn't say where that half is - probably not in high-density urban areas.

But it doesn't even have to mean that. It could also mean that certain undesirable neighborhoods cost far below the median, pulling the average down.


I think the idea that the grandparent commenter was pointing out is that pointing to higher percentages of income going towards rent is an overly simplistic metric. If the percentage of income spent on rent goes from, say, 20 to 40%, but average incomes double then the total amount of post-rent income still went up by 50%.

Well, not everyone earns the average income (obviously). So the percentage is wrong for everyone.

It says that for a 3 person household. For a single income, it puts you above 90%, eerily similar to the data I presented :)

Article has a bad way of representing how they use their data points but the data is nationwide income percentiles. The top 1% household income is > $630k

That's not a useful thing to add to the conversation without the context of how much income is going to those two different groups of income earners. Some might even say it is purposefully misleading.

It becomes even more obvious when you look at the rest of the chart.

While the income breakdown is 22%/23%/32%, the urban breakdown is 30%/25%/28%/12%. With the largest difference between City and Rural.

This is not commented on by the author, as it would undercut their implicit point.


Here's a citation showing the opposite.

https://equityhealthj.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/s12...

The difference in health insurance coverage between whites and blacks is 4 percentage points. The difference in health insurance coverage between high and low income households is 10 percentage points.


The 99th percentile leaves out the income of the top 1 percent. And, in any event, none of these graphs are really representing the size of each slice of the pie for a group of people, they're just looking at the income at that level.

I guess we'll have to agree to disagree. I don't find the paper very informative, but I find the BI article to be an accurate representation of what the author is trying to say.


This is the relevant data:

https://www.advisorperspectives.com/dshort/updates/2019/11/2...

Median doesn't tell enough of the story for what most of the population is experiencing.


Oh, spare me the semantics, the difference is still single digit % of the total income.

It’s hard to really grok what the means for this type of comparison. For census data, information is self-reported and often under reported income doesn’t include many common sources of money.

Additionally, median income driven down by the number of people living on social security, and many of those get benefits like housing subsidy that aren’t income.

It’s a good metric to compare areas, not jobs.


Thanks. So, it's assets less debt. This is a huge flaw in the study. Even if everyone in the country had exactly the same income and savings rate, you'd still expect a triangle distribution of wealth because of differences in age (graded by years of saving followed by years of retirement on the downward slope). In reality, you have a huge number of people living with a high quality of life with almost no savings (house fully mortgaged, some small equity in their car maybe). Any measurement that counts these people the same as homeless is deeply flawed.

And then we're going to compare that bogus metric with what random people think it might ought to be after a few moments of thought. How many of the respondents do you think asked for a paper and calculator before giving their answer? This whole article is terrible rhetorical slight of hand.


The graph in your link is reproduced almost exactly in the link I shared (as chart 1). It doesn't take into account non wage income and a few other things.

It's also a problem because the median tells you nothing about who goes without. For that you need to know the distribution. Bottom 5% of housing cost vs bottom 5% household income is more informative.
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