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In 2011 the UK still had our old defamation laws - they were changed in 2013. So it would have been really easy for him to both sue and win a defamation case. The Guardian would have had to prove, on the balance of probabilities, that he had said those things.

Why didn't he bring that case?



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UK libel laws aren't that bad for situations like this — if he were sued in the UK, he could rely on the defence of honest opinion and I imagine he would prevail.

Well, since this was written in the UK, couldn't he use their libel laws to sue if he hadn't said it?

The article states that there were multiple journalists who could be called as witnesses, and could testify as to what happened, one way or the other.


The UK has very different libel laws, so it isn't quite the same as suing for libel in the US (which is rather rare).

Defamation suits in the UK are obviously under their defamation laws which have a lot of problems with them. They're open to abuse by rich and powerful entities.

Good point. Plus the author is in the UK, which has much tougher libel laws.

> > British defamation law is notoriously friendly to plaintiffs.

> English defamation law... does not require the plaintiff to prove falsehood.

That's not 'notoriously friendly to plaintiffs'. It's simply reasonable behaviour: if someone says something horrible about someone else, the person saying it must be able to prove it was true.


IIRC UK libel laws are somewhat unusual in that you can win a case without actually proving that the allegedly libelous statements are false.

Two curiosities to note:

- He did not sue his accuser. He sued people who trusted her word and amplified her allegations. England's (draconian) libel laws would require them to prove that the allegations were true. That's obviously very difficult.

- He lives in Germany, but he chose to sue in England. Germany has more typical libel laws that would require him to prove that he was defamed.


Are you familiar with British libel law? It's infamously plaintiff friendly. People have lost even though the statements in question were, in fact, truthful.

The reason the case was tried in England:

*A defamatory statement is presumed to be false, unless the defendant can prove its truth. [..] English defamation law puts the burden of proof on the defendant, and does not require the plaintiff to prove falsehood." - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_defamation_law


They accused him of libel, actually. In the UK you can both be telling the truth and be guilty of libel. (Hence the hubbub there about libel reform)

"he didn't sue me for libel" is not much of an argument. Most false reports don't end up in a libel suit even in the UK.

I'm not saying it's false, I don't know, but the reporting on this has been hotly contested and there are charges of politicization all around.


Britain's libel laws are garbage, so I'm sure he doesn't.

The glossed-over underlying issue in the linked article is that Britain's libel laws are notoriously hard to defend against. In the US, a comment has to be proven libelous; in the UK, you have to prove it isn't.

He won the case in the end. But he must have had a few brown trouser moments along the way, UK libel being what it is. IIRC it also ended with some UK reforms to libel law.

He did say in an interview somewhere that good ideas for books only along once in a while.


People talk about English defamation law, but they may not realise that there are reasonably recent (2013) changes.

The claimant has to show actual or probable serious harm; there has to be geographical relevance to bring the case in the UK; and there are stronger defences. (Truth, honest opinion, public interest, or priviledged publication (eg, scientific journal)).

These changes came around to protect freedom of speech a bit more than the old act did.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defamation_Act_2013

I'd be interested to know if Trump could have brought a case in the US if a US paper had written the same things?


The British libel laws leave some to be desired but they would have solved a situation like this. Publications would not have been able to rebroadcast the accusation with proof.

Since you cite the UK law, it should be noted that (at least I'm pretty sure) the UK no longer has criminal libel laws.

I'd be OK with the police suing him for defamation, but he should not serve jail time.


He sued for defamation against the media organisations who exposed him and he lost _hard_. So all the facts that might ordinarily be in dispute and have tiptoe-around language to avoid being sued for can be stated plainly.
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