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Definitely an interesting read, though I'd counter that 30% higher in the US than in the UK feels significant (36.2% versus 27.8%).


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Thank you (though I'd hoped for a link to that figure but I guess there's not a direct one, it's an implied result). It's higher than I would expect but of similar scale, perhaps my own perspective is a little biased by being non-US (though comparative), and mostly being used to a low-income environment and culture.

The paper isn't linked in the article (I think the parent was referring to the article). I think you're referring to the paper here: https://scholar.harvard.edu/files/stantcheva/files/alesina_s...

Looking at it myself now, it doesn't seem like the US is all that different from the other countries examined, e.g. US 12.7% Q1->Q4 vs. 12.9% for UK vs. 12.8% for France. For Q1->Q3 it's somewhat higher (18.7% vs. 19.9% for UK for example) but for Q1->Q2 the US is also higher than the others (e.g., 27.7% US vs. 25.1% UK).


Well, the UK has about 20% of the population of the US, so it is proportional

Wouldn't the more relevant statistic be the relative rates compared to the US?

I think it is worth pointing out that the figures are from the US only. I wonder how this compares to the rest of the world.

In Australia it's pretty close to 100%

http://www.bitre.gov.au/publications/2011/files/is_040.pdf

In much of Europe it's higher. In the US it's lower.


The interesting thing to me is that it's only 96% in the US. Worldwide it's closer to 78%, according to the linked article.

Closer to 30%, and even less in North America.

Well, that's demographics for you. Although this article is about Britain, I'd guess the relevant #s in the US are within a few per cent: http://www.economist.com/books/displayStory.cfm?story_id=154...

Wasn't the point of the grand parent's post that, per capita, it isn't higher in the US as compared to the UK?

14% is worldwide, in the US it's roughly 50%

Financial Times reports the opposite[1] (population: UK and USA) so who knows? Time will tell.

1: https://www.ft.com/content/c361e372-769e-45cd-a063-f5c0a7767...


A similar percentage applies to many Western nations.

I'd be curious to see the proportional gap between the top 10% and bottom 10% compared. My guess is a much larger gap in the US, but I wonder by how much.

Is that a worldwide trend, or is it based on US data? That's not clearly stated in the tweet.

Thouh its about 45% in the US, and similar levels in OECD countries.

That fits more with numbers I've seen from several countries (UK, Israel, and I think Germany).

I was referring to the US in my last comment, it's the only one I'd seen so far that was so skewed to >95%.


Interesting. I should have been more explicit - my figures are for the U.S. only.
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