I don't think a question where one possible answer is "legislatures can unilaterally decide the results of their own elections" is one that needs revisiting and its astounding that anyone could sincerely believe that that is what the framers intended
That's not what's at issue? How are you getting there. It's about who gets to decide the rules, legislatures or the court. Dunno about you, but that seems like a good question to get settled.
The legislature already decides the rules through the traditional legislative process. If the legislature alone decides the rules without judicial or executive checks it can engineer whatever result it wants. We don't let congress do whatever it wants just because the federal constitution has "vague principles" that courts try to hold them to, it shouldn't be any different for states and state elections.
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