This has to be argued in an impartial court with facts demonstrating and documenting intent.
Albanese’s mere words won’t count as facts.
If there is intent why does the IDF warn before strikes?
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Do you think it's possible to act in a way to veil your intent as much as possible?
Further questions to ask yourself : Did Israel let power back in Gaza? Can the Gazans get the warning? Do they warn everytime? What's the delay?
Where does "soldiers dressing up as aid workers and doctors against international law" fit in your idea of "warning before a strike"?
And most important of all - is there a line they could conceivably cross for you to call it genocide?
This has to be argued in an impartial court with facts demonstrating and documenting intent.
Albanese’s mere words won’t count as facts.
If there is intent why does the IDF warn before strikes?
reply