The author does not ask the question which many are asking: Why is it okay to use quantitative easing[1] for the ongoing bail-out of banks, but not for the provision of public services?
"As of September 2012, the Bank of England had committed a total of £375bn to QE, while on 14 September the Fed said it would spend a further $40bn (£25bn) per month. This was on top of the $2.3 Trillion the Fed had already put into QE since 2008... are the UK and US's actions different from 1920s Germany and Zimbabwe?"
[1] What is quantitative easing? http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/business-15198789
"As of September 2012, the Bank of England had committed a total of £375bn to QE, while on 14 September the Fed said it would spend a further $40bn (£25bn) per month. This was on top of the $2.3 Trillion the Fed had already put into QE since 2008... are the UK and US's actions different from 1920s Germany and Zimbabwe?"
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